we all know that ut, once paired with a subjunctive, is analyzed as "in bespeak to" (purpose), "to" (indirect command), and, with some words, "that" (result/fear). However, ut v an indicative method "(just) as". I can"t number out how subjunctive/indicative renders that transformation. After all, subjunctive simply adds a sense of "maybe", right?

How does that readjust "just as" right into three various other apparently different things? What underlying principle ties them every together?

In short, why go ut typical such different things as soon as all that alters is the atmosphere of the verb?

NB: I can understand why adding some words changes the meaning. I"m confused about why the mood has actually such a correctly effect.

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classical-6294.org definition conjunction ut
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edited Apr 5 "17 at 18:22

Joonas Ilmavirta♦
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inquiry Feb 24 "16 in ~ 20:02

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Well, i think the point to perform is to remember that, when ut has three various English meanings, it has only one 6294.org definition and 3 uses.

A 6294.org speaker can just as quickly ask, "Why go English to have such different definitions when it"s provided with the verb in a purpose clause and when it"s provided with a noun?" (I realize the the analogy isn"t exact; if I deserve to think the a better one I"ll edit.)

The point is, i think that especially for duty words favor this, trying to find a unifying an interpretation is doomed come fail uneven you"re examining language adjust through time. At some point in the development of 6294.org, the offers were close enough that they made sense.

By the time of the 6294.org us know, but . . . The prize is pretty lot "just because."

(I establish this is a highly unsatisfactory answer, and I apologize!)

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answered Mar 17 "16 in ~ 0:22

Joel DerfnerJoel Derfner
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